Posted September 01, 2012
edit: ok gotta to rewrite the post, im terrible at using the reply feature and none of my responses came up, just one long wall of quotes.
so from top down to post 15
The death falling down on sinner and innocent alike seems to mean that the killing (whatever its source) was indiscriminate, it still does not specify god is the origin of the evil. And im not inventing anything, thats how I understood the passage the first time through, and how i still understand it. just as when i first heard the title Caesar conqueror of Gaul i didn't think he was a Gaul, nor did i think that Attila was thought to be sent by god because the romans called him "scourge of god"
What would my bias be then?
How exactly is the devil an agent of God?
Every government has an organization which roots out dissidents and enemies of the state, including the US (FBI, CIA) and UK (Special Branch) , so why specifically is the inquisition being compared to North Koreas secret police?
so from top down to post 15
The death falling down on sinner and innocent alike seems to mean that the killing (whatever its source) was indiscriminate, it still does not specify god is the origin of the evil. And im not inventing anything, thats how I understood the passage the first time through, and how i still understand it. just as when i first heard the title Caesar conqueror of Gaul i didn't think he was a Gaul, nor did i think that Attila was thought to be sent by god because the romans called him "scourge of god"
What would my bias be then?
How exactly is the devil an agent of God?
Every government has an organization which roots out dissidents and enemies of the state, including the US (FBI, CIA) and UK (Special Branch) , so why specifically is the inquisition being compared to North Koreas secret police?
Post edited September 01, 2012 by BabylonianKing