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Potzato: I don't consider it that way
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Firebrand9: Confirmation bias isn't fact. Grammar is defined as "the study of the way the sentences of a language are constructed; morphology and syntax." (http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/grammar). Punctuation is an essential part of that.

Grammar isn't purely conjugation, although that's a portion of it. If you say that punctuation is also essential to French, and I can't imagine it isn't important to any written language, then that's an element of grammar, and therefore grammar is also important there.

Also, orthography (aka spelling) does affect tense and a multitude of other factors depending on context, but isn't a sole factor. Though, if I'm interpreting your overarching meaning correctly, you mean to say that in French things like that are more consistent and less prone to context (EG - "I am going to read" vs "I read already" or "run" vs "ran"). Which I believe is the case in many European languages (though Spanish for instance is highly prone to gender considerations in context).
Spelling isn't orthography, spelling is a part of orthography. Orthography includes word breaks, punctuation, spelling, emphasis and other things.

And you're absolutely correct about grammar, some languages have grammar without having conjugations. Chinese, as an example, doesn't have conjugations at all and relies upon particles to communicate aspects rather than having a verb be conjugated.
My point was that it would make sense for english to categorize every language mistake as grammatical mistake, because as you two said conjugation may be prominent or non existant given the language (latin languages for instance have such a complex conjugation that verbs can be written in several dozens of way depending on ... many things).

My point was just expressing the fact that in french schools, we usually don't categorize all mistakes as grammar. But through this thread I indeed learned that even in french "by definition" most of those aspects are part of grammar. Example : in french, when someone writes something like "what r u doin ?", nobody says it is bad grammar, I know that everybody says it's bad orthography (at least ....those who know what orthography is).
its very hard to tell difference between proper Grammar and and improper Grammer
Feel free to prove otherwise.

link: http://www.nsa.gov/public_info/_files/tech_journals/mokusatsu.pdf



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Firebrand9: "I'd rather be pissed off than pissed on"
vs
"I'd rather be pissed off then pissed on"

~
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Potzato: That's the weakness of english, despite being right, this need context when spoken up. For instance, French doesn't use phrasal verbs and there is very little confusion possible, if punctuation is respected.
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Firebrand9: Punctuation is part of grammar.

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hedwards: Doesn't you're local PBS station carry anything? Masterpiece theater and Mystery often times feature British programming. I think A&E does as well.

EDIT: Grammar.
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Firebrand9: Here's a case-in-point; possibly intentional.

Pst! Keep editing : " Doesn't your local PBS station carry anything?"

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Lionel212008: That's pretty much how 'Hiroshima" and "Nagasaki" were bombed.
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Firebrand9: This is a joke or some horribly bad misinformation. Correlation doesn't imply causation.
Ibis redibis nunquam per bella peribis!
I think grammar is always an important part of languages.
However for lovers of correct pronounciation:

Sounds like corpse, corps, horse and worse
I will keep you, Susy, busy,
Make your head with heat grow dizzy.

http://www.mipmip.org/tidbits/pronunciation.shtml
Post edited February 14, 2014 by Trilarion
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hedwards: Spelling isn't orthography, spelling is a part of orthography. Orthography includes word breaks, punctuation, spelling, emphasis and other things.

And you're absolutely correct about grammar, some languages have grammar without having conjugations. Chinese, as an example, doesn't have conjugations at all and relies upon particles to communicate aspects rather than having a verb be conjugated.
Well, it essentially is correct spelling, but I suppose it's a slightly broader consideration of that in context for the sake of syntax. But, that end consideration hinges off spelling.
Grammar is important because using poor grammar could possibly lead to people thinking that you are less intelligent than you truly are. Another possible negative outcome created by poor grammar is failing grammar tests and quizzes which could possibly create hindrances to your education.
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Lionel212008: Feel free to prove otherwise.

link: http://www.nsa.gov/public_info/_files/tech_journals/mokusatsu.pdf
That's only a single source. If historians aren't reporting it, that's a very bad sign for the validity.

It also states directly "Within 10 days the decision to drop the bomb was made". Again, correlation does not imply causation. That's a Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc fallacy.
Post edited February 15, 2014 by Firebrand9
I am well versed with the nature of logical fallacies and the process of ratiocination to arrive at a logical conclusion. It has been established that the mistranslation did act as a catalyst for the bomb being dropped....there is no question about that.

Since you lack knowledge of it does not necessarily delineate that the incident is false.

Links:

1:http://www.nytimes.com/1989/08/21/opinion/l-good-translation-might-have-prevented-hiroshima-322089.html
2: http://www.hartford-hwp.com/archives/20/046.html
3: http://www.johnwcooper.com/papers/atomicbombtruman.htm
4.http://www.btb.termiumplus.gc.ca/tpv2guides/guides/favart/index-fra.html?lang=fra&lettr=indx_titls&page=9P4IeDVi-GJc.html (Another government site)
5.http://books.google.co.in/books?id=JTvdhvkVAB0C&pg=PA120&dq=mistranslation+atom+bomb&hl=en&sa=X&ei=VLsBU7HxKMnsrAfk6IDgCA&ved=0CCoQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=mistranslation%20atom%20bomb&f=false

Well, there is a possibility that this is an urban legend considering that you cannot believe everything that you read in print but I haven't come across any information that debunks it as yet.

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Lionel212008: Feel free to prove otherwise.

link: http://www.nsa.gov/public_info/_files/tech_journals/mokusatsu.pdf
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Firebrand9: That's only a single source. If historians aren't reporting it, that's a very bad sign for the validity.

It also states directly "Within 10 days the decision to drop the bomb was made". Again, correlation does not imply causation. That's a Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc fallacy.
Post edited February 17, 2014 by Lionel212008
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Lionel212008: It has been established that the mistranslation did act as a catalyst for the bomb being dropped....there is no question about that.

Since you lack knowledge of it does not necessarily delineate that the incident is false.

Well, there is a possibility that this is an urban legend considering that you cannot believe everything that you read in print but I haven't come across any information that debunks it as yet.
There is question about that. Just because you find a few other places that list the same information doesn't increase the validity.

And just because it's written does not necessarily delineate the incident is true. The burden of proof falls on the claimant, not the person rebuking it.

Quite a possibility that this is urban legend. Again, I point to exhibit A which is historian's take on the subject. Media is not obligated to report truth.

~

To take one portion of one source you listed : "Furthermore, Sakomizu suspects that the misinterpretation on the part of the United States was intentional. "

Which basically implies that, at best, this was used as an excuse. A fabricated excuse at that. Which further implies that they had already decided based on other factors, and allowed this to be a scapegoat.

But the weasel word there is "suspects" which means, even as these accounts go and their attribution to this any mistranslation, the connection isn't absolutely proven, only speculative.

Another source backs this line of thought with "Truman was unable to alter the terms of unconditional surrender because the cry for unconditional surrender was too strong and had gained too much momentum" also implying that they had made their decision to carry through regardless of something as trivially impacting as a mistranslation. In other words, they already had adequate motive, which fits with the historical accounts.

Additional evidence to support this comes in the form of the following :

"The allied newspapers interpreted the word mokusatsu to mean “reject" (Brooks, 164). Truman concurred with this definition and said, “[Japan's] leaders promptly rejected that ultimatum” (Brooks, 164). Since the American newspapers reported the interpretation of the controversial word to mean "reject" Japan was able to see America's interpretation of their response. However, “there is no record of an effort by the Japanese government to overtly or covertly transmit to the Allies any hint that mokusatsu did not precisely reflect its attitude” (Frank, 234). Additionally if Hirohito, who read the newspapers daily, had been concerned about the ambiguity of Japan's response and possible misinterpretation of its meaning, to this very day "we have no record of it" (Bix, 91).

Japan's secret cables intercepted and decoded by the United States failed to suggest Japan had any desire to surrender."

They basically state that although Japan had the means and information necessary to correct any miscommunication, they chose not to do so. Again, implying that his was merely an excuse to act.

Again, none of these sources are necessarily credible which calls into question anything written by them.
Post edited February 17, 2014 by Firebrand9
http://www.gog.com/forum/general/fuck_you_all_giveaway/post130

That and the next post :)
Punctuation is important too...............
The nature of facts is that they continue to evolve and when examined up close, all facts are to a degree ambiguous. There is a certain lacunae in our understanding (That what is defined by the finite number of senses through which we perceive things) where we can arrive at the most tenable conjecture. That is the basis of evidence and proof. Nothing is absolutely absolute....

Is the sky really blue or is it that how we perceive the sky to be?
Is the pencil tip you see actually solid?
Do you really exist or are merely a figment of my imagination and I of yours?

If there are reports about something then it acquires a certain degree of credence. While in actuality it may well be propaganda disguised as the truth. The world is after all ruled by propaganda. There are those who make the rules (take grammar for instance) and the fools who follow them.

We lead our lives believing certain ideas or beliefs as being right and true. That is what becomes our 'reality'. However that what is 'right' and 'true' are merely vague ideas or concepts if you will. Thus the reality you live in may very well turn out be an illusion. There are no absolutes and nothing can be stated with absolute certainty.

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Firebrand9: And just because it's written does not necessarily delineate the incident is true. The burden of proof falls on the claimant, not the person rebuking it.

[
Post edited February 18, 2014 by Lionel212008
Grammar, including capitalization and punctuation is very important.

It's the difference between knowing your shit, and knowing you're shit.
Post edited February 18, 2014 by skeletonbow