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dudalb: ... And how did this discussion get sidetrtackes into a discussion of racism.?
Because one guy insisted on it. And another guy (with a lot of patience) explained the exact meanings and now it's kind of solved as far as I can see.

I see it mostly as hate speech. "Fuck Merkel" or "Fuck the Greeks" is just an expression of hate. Nothing else. It's not going to help anyone about anything and so absolutely useless.
How about we let some Germans tell something about all these (with a bit of humor) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2mnvKLoMC7Y
I also like John Finnemore's take on that (3 years old now but still actual).

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gZHlKelvMXk
low rated
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Telika: However, racism, in a broad sense, is a specific form of discrimination. And racism isn't a thing-that-goes-way-beyond-discrimination.
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Atlantico: In a broad sense your hand is your leg.

Racism is the catalyst for violence like lynching, for slavery, not for whether you get a cab or not. If you equate racism with discrimination, you're so off base it's like you've never seen racism in action or met any actual racists. They exist.

Violence, like lynching a black man in S-USA is not discrimination, but rather the inhuman violence restricted only for things outside our own species (check out a chicken farm sometime). Because the racists simply don't see people different from them as real humans.Because they are fucking racists.

Racism obviously calls for discrimination, just as water tends to make one wet, but we don't consider drowning "getting wet, in a broad sense".
No, you are wrong here. Firstly because you assume effects specific to racialism, while other discriminating rhetorics can have the same effects. War propagandas, for instance, are not always based on genetic arguments, but still feature enough deshumanizing arguments to justify satisfaction or indifference to the fate of national "others". Street beatings or institutional violence can still be targetted at human groups that are defined by other differentialisms than genome. Many countries have classes of citizen (or non-citizens) defined by non-racialist categorisations. Ethnic cleansings can be based on language, religion, assumed ideology, all sorts of labels having just in common "these people, they are all the same" or "these people they will/must never be part of us".

And then your second fallacy is to assume a different nature for different levels of practical discrimination (various degrees of social exclusions, and symbolic/physical violence), ignoring how they are based on a similar worldview (differentialism, essentialism, determinism), actualized differently in different circumstances. When there is somewhere a shared representation of inferiority of a given group, when this background belief is present, historical circumatances alone determine how it will be expressed. The difference of degree is not a difference of nature, and the real issue is the underlying belief that enable them: the social representations that define and radicalize this "otherness", and that holds the potential of practical discrimination however it is being implemented by different individuals or in different historical circumstances.

And then you are even wrong when thinking there is a clear cut difference of belief between racialist views and czlturalist views. Antisemitism, for instance, is nowadays both and neither. Antisemits often claim to know that judaism is not a race, yet it doesn't affect their discourses (on the attributes of "jews"). Culturalists can act "it is no race" while still effectively describing a "race" through the mechanical determinism and the homogeneity of their understanding of "culture" (in other words, they switch to the 'cultural' narrative while importing all the contents of 'racial' narratives and not grasping one bit how 'culture' is different from 'race'). And just like cultural discrimination has often racialist components (even by another name), racialist discourses themselves are never purely racialist, as the race construct itself is stretched to blatantly social categories by circumstances (the 'tutsi' category included people that its own racialist logic would normally exclude, such as lukewarm people, people who rejected this differentialism, people who were judged close to 'tutsis', etc).

You imagine a clear cut difference of content (and rationalizations) between racialist and culturalist or nation-based forms of racism, and you shift the issue of racism to some behavioural threshold. You should be more curious about the history of racisms, its mechanisms, and its evolutions, instead of taking at non-analytical face value all that is related to it.

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Atlantico: In a broad sense your hand is your leg.
By the way, if you still have issues with that, try to think of terms that are used differently (more narrowly or more broadly) in different contexts of relevance. One exemple being "animal", which is mostly used as opposed as "human", but, academically, includes humans.

This polysemy allows for fallacies like : "Hey, don't treat people like that, that's how we treat animals" "- People ARE animals, i don't understand what you mean." Try to pinpoint the element of bad faith in that selective reference to one decontextualized meaning of the word.
Post edited July 02, 2015 by Telika
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Telika: I'm too familiar with both main narratives (and their rationalisations, and the way they dismiss each others points) that I am unconvinced by one being exclusively Right and the other Wrong.
Which is the problem with many political arguments: that people care who is right and who is wrong, when the real thing to care about is how to move things forward.

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Telika: In many domains, though, the more you know the less clear-cut your stances get.
And the less clear cut your stances get, the less value they have. Which is why people with an actual idea of what should be done will get the attention they deserve. A stance which tried to understand all sides and offer a compromise is a valid stance. A lack of stance, as in your case, is noise that simply needs to be ignored.

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Cadaver747: Democracy doesn't work at all. For example 51% percent of population are *retrogrades* who thinks gay marriages are against their belief system. But for unknown reason governments make all the efforts to save minorities.
Not sure if serious. That's exactly an example that democracy works. Democracy isn't about giving the majority what they want, but of everyone having a say and equal rights to all citizens.
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Cadaver747: ... Democracy doesn't work at all. For example 51% percent of population are *retrogrades* who thinks gay marriages are against their belief system. But for unknown reason governments make all the efforts to save minorities. ...
The thing which is missing here is the constitution. Everyone has rights, even minorities. And these rights cannot be taken away, not from 51% and not from any other number. This is very important otherwise democracy tends to be also a tyranny.

Personal freedom, freedom of speech, dignity, equal chances, freedom of religion, secularity, ... whatever your local constitution guarantees you is something that stands above any democratic decision.

In the US now they decided that marriage between man and women is not the real thing but marriage between two individuals is (with a democratic 5 to 4 vote of the judges in the constitutional court). Just because gays are a minority (for some obscure biological reasons probably) doesn't mean you should deny them what non-gays have. Well this is kind of a modern interpretation because it stands to reason that the founding fathers surely didn't really think about homosexuality much (but maybe also they didn't fear it as much as in the last decades).

I think the best is a wise constitution and democracy together.

Also I guess that those who are against gay marriages will get fewer and fewer very soon and will be a minority themselves. Judging from the trend of the past the judges just anticipated what would have happened in the US society anyway in the next years. They put out a very poetic judgement but probably were only extrapolating into the near future (and re-interpreted the constitution in a relatively modern way). In 10 years a big majority will be for gay marriages and will see them as absolutely normal. I think the fight is over (at least in the two Americas and in Euope, not in Asia and Africa though).
Apparently according to the press here, the wording of the referendum is causing a lot of confusion in Greece, is this true?

I looked at an English translation and had a WTF moment, but I haven't had my morning coffee yet.

I think the EU are letting Tsipras (sp?) dangle in the wind for the decision he made to go to the people, they recognised it was an attempt for Tsipras to create a "Get out of Jail Free" card so he could avoid blame for the debacle and pass it on the the greek people.

Now they are saying...OK, well if you want to go to the greek people to see if they want to continue in the EU, then why should we bail them out before they make that decision?

I know all greeks have it very difficult at the moment, but jeepers my heart really goes out to the older people of pension age, the loss confusion and desperation they must be feeling at a time in their lives when they should be relaxing and enjoying the fruits of their past labour and the helplessness of not being able to do anything about it at that age must be dreadful :(
A short clip from a longer interview with Chomsky on the subject of Greek austerity from back in March.

http://www.democracynow.org/blog/2015/7/1/chomsky_greece_s_syriza_spain_s
One thing about the referendum is that as far as I know the Greek government has not clearly indicated what a NO means in the referendum. This would be of course not very good because in a successfull referendum must have two meaningful, clear options. Does NO mean that Greece exits the euro or the EU or just that the government continues the negotiations (if there is any negotiation left) or what exactly are the options then. Maybe I have not read enough and the Greek government has actually a plan for the NO case but currently I doubt it. That's not good. They should clearly say what they are going to do in the NO case.

In general I wonder why there are some countries on earth who are totally corrupt and some who are a bit less (so that most things still work) corrupt? What is the cause for the difference. See this map (http://www.transparency.org/cpi2014/results) and you see a clear inverse relation between the wealth and the corruption but it's totally not clear what is the cause and what is the result of these two. So basically I'm asking: Is economic success causing suppressed corruption or is suppressed corruption causing economic success or is both expression of another yet unknown underlying factor? Why do some people get easily corrupt and others not? Maybe it's some other cultural factor or simply chance or even religion?

What I would have liked if Greek people at some point would have gathered in Athen and demanded the strongest anti-corruption laws in the world backed by the stronged executional actions (both of which did not happen) because they were fed up with how the corrupt politicians (society) of the last 20 years ruined their country but that didn't happen. My impression is that there is much work still to do to uncover all the crimes that have happened in the past instead there is a big chance they just get away but at least then one should make sure this will not happen again and as it looks now corruption can easily / and does happen still in Greece.
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Trilarion: See this map (http://www.transparency.org/cpi2014/results) and you see a clear inverse relation between the wealth and the corruption but it's totally not clear what is the cause and what is the result of these two.
That is a "corruption perception" index. Basically, they call the people and ask them "do you think your govermnent is corrupt?". And take a look at the major founders of this institution.

I already said it more than once, corruption is not the issue, but fine, let's assume it might be.

If you want I can do the math between economic indicators of countries and corruption, data from the Worldbank. Pick a year, or more than once, and let's see if there's any kind of correlation.

It would take me some time, though, and I want to make it worth. Wanna bet something?
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Trilarion: See this map (http://www.transparency.org/cpi2014/results) and you see a
Interesting map, I wonder what they base their irish corruption rating on.
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Trilarion: See this map (http://www.transparency.org/cpi2014/results) and you see a
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Riotact: Interesting map, I wonder what they base their irish corruption rating on.
I suppose not the least because of things like Apple having 'main office' here, which doesn't participate in weekly meetings at all.
Ireland is a tax asylim for big corporations.
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Riotact: Interesting map, I wonder what they base their irish corruption rating on.
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Gremlion: I suppose not the least because of things like Apple having 'main office' here, which doesn't participate in weekly meetings at all.
Ireland is a tax asylim for big corporations.
Yes, but that tax "loophole" is in American law, which allows them to do that apparently. AFAIK We are totally compliant with EU law (open to correction).

On saying that I would equate corruption with bribes.
Post edited July 03, 2015 by Riotact
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Gremlion: I suppose not the least because of things like Apple having 'main office' here, which doesn't participate in weekly meetings at all.
Ireland is a tax asylim for big corporations.
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Riotact: Yes, but that tax "loophole" is in American law, which allows them to do that apparently. AFAIK We are totally compliant with EU law (open to correction).

On saying that I would equate corruption with bribes.
Corruption have many faces.
When company, which belongs to mayor's wife wins municipal contract - this is possible corruption. No bribes involved.
When army exagerrates treats to get more fundings and doesn't care about quality of spending... Still no bribes. (Have you heard about prices of US jets?)
When company signs a contract for million € and does only 500k job - this is also corruption.
Last one is the main gripe about russian corruption, bribes are in decline.
Post edited July 03, 2015 by Gremlion
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Riotact: Yes, but that tax "loophole" is in American law, which allows them to do that apparently. AFAIK We are totally compliant with EU law (open to correction).

On saying that I would equate corruption with bribes.
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Gremlion: Corruption have many faces.
When company, which belongs to mayor's wife wins municipal contract - this is possible corruption. No bribes involved.
When army exagerrates treats to get more fundings and doesn't care about quality of spending... Still no bribes. (Have you heard about prices of US jets?)
When company signs a contract for million € and does only 500k job - this is also corruption.
Last one is the main gripe about russian corruption, bribes are in decline.
Well, I'm pretty sure that none of that is going on any more in Ireland, but I suppose you can never be 100% certain (but in the 70's and 80's they were all severe problems here).